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    The check_list test function always returns True if one of the arrays is empty.

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    Description for VAR is extremely dense; it definitely requires much more description on what should be used for the calculation of predicted gain/loss. Even the description in Investopedia provides a formula and denotes each term, which is infinitely easier to understand than the current kata description (which is hopeless to grasp).

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    The method should be named "get_shift", and should take 1 argument: Name of the Equity/Currency Using our previously imported data

    The argument name in the code is misleading:

    def get_shift(self, asset):
    

    It is not an asset, it's asset | currency.

    Similarly, typo:

    def get_var(self, asset, risk_class, convidence):
    

    convidence -> confidence. Tests also uses conv when conf should be the correct term.

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    Test messages are kind of unacceptable:

    MartyCorp un-ordered relative shift should be [0.044444, -0.010638, -0.021505, -0.010989, 0.111111, 0.04, -0.009615, -0.019417, -0.019802, 0.010101]: False should equal True
    

    it only shows the expected value, but not the actual value.

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    This comment is hidden because it contains spoiler information about the solution

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    permutation tests is passing in a tuple instead of a list.

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    Thanks for your kind words.

    i happy the the sheer length of the kata-description-text did not scare you away from this kata ( since i think the that the underlying topic is pretty interesting ).

    Have a nice day :-)

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    I would say this kata is pretty tough to solve, but I'm glad I finally completed it after 3 days of thoughts.

    I liked this kata, but some parts of kata were pretty unclear to deal with. Still, I managed to resolve them and, with some accuracy tricks, I passed this problem.

    Thanks for the kata! :)

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    No lists were harmed in this solution!

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    i think that carloscerro is right.

    The valuation-test seems to rely on an unchanged input variable.

    please check the following code. It will fail for the first basic test (One toggle), but will succeed if you out-commend the lines 2 and 3:

    def solve(puzzle):
      if 0 < len(puzzle):
        puzzle[0][0] = (puzzle[0][0] + 1) % 2
      return [(1, 1)]
    
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    Hi Reswin,

    thanks for the feedback.
    In fact, uttumuttu did a good job and seems to be very clever in general.

    PS:
    This kind of approach ( using past or self-defined relative shifts for the risk-factors ) is not only used to calculate Vaule-at-Risk, but also other by risk-measures like "expected shortfall", or scenarios ( e.g. black friday ) or sensitivities ( checking how much win/loss e.g. a yield shift of 1% would induce ).

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    @uttumuttu's second suggestion to describe VAR was helfpul for me: "The simplest explanation (of VAR) is that each equity's total shifts are obtained as the relative shifts of its currency-converted price series." I enjoyed the kata because it not only allowed me to practice Python but also to learn about VAR.

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    Sorry have written, before thinking:

    VAR is not sub-additive in both dimensions ( over Risk-Classes and over sub-Positions ).

    Will modify th desciption accordingly.

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    Hi uttumttu,

    thanks a lot for your input.
    Since i am very new to writing kata, i do need some help indeed.
    It's in fact a thin line between spoiling too much of the algorythm/implementation or potentially frustrate someone trying to solve it.

    i don't know, if that is common practise, but feel free to apply some your suggestions to the description, as well.

    I added the following section ( it's near the end ), but i do get the feeling, that the whole kata description may be too long now ( distracting interested people ) for such a relative simple calculation :

    We had no Forex risk involved in this example, since the equity was listed in your base-currency.
    Please ensure that the shifts of the foreign currency are taken into account, as well, when calculating the 'Total'-VAR for a foreign-currency-equity-positions.

    You then might notice some kind of strange behaviour of your VAR-results:
    VAR is not additive !

    So neither

    total VAR = equity VAR + currency VAR
    

    nor

    VAR(EQ_all) = VAR(EQ1) + VAR(EQ2)
    for an Equity position EQ_all that consists fo Equity position 1 ( EQ1 ) + Equity position 2 ( EQ2 )
    

    In fact, the VAR for a given position might be lower or equal than the sum of the VAR of it's parts.

    When looking at the different Riskclasses, it's even 'worse': The total-VAR can be lower, equal or bigger than the sum of equity-VAR and currency-VAR.

    Keep in mind, that the Value-at-Risk measurement is based on the potential top losses (relative shifts) only. And these top losses ( for individual equities or riskclasses ) may have occurred on different historical days ( for the equities/riskclasses ) involved.

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